Does this improve the likelihood that it is treatable?
Some previous theories had been that Alzheimer's was essentially genetic. But never fully genetic, instead of guaranteeing your chance of getting it, it just increases the likelihood.
So my question is: Could this hint at Alzheimer's being the result of some yet undetected infection in the brain that some people are more prone to due to genetics, and that is transmitted due to brain tissue sharing?
There is some ongoing research as well to establish whether or not AZ is a form a brain diabetes. But at this stage the amyloid hypothesis is still considered the most probable.
My understanding was that they weren't separate hypotheses but one. I thought amyloid beta interrupted insulin signalling which then lead to all of the downstream effects of neuroinflammation, cell death, oxidative stress, glutamate toxicity, etc etc.
But I've never been super clear on the type 3 diabetes explanation.
Some previous theories had been that Alzheimer's was essentially genetic. But never fully genetic, instead of guaranteeing your chance of getting it, it just increases the likelihood.
So my question is: Could this hint at Alzheimer's being the result of some yet undetected infection in the brain that some people are more prone to due to genetics, and that is transmitted due to brain tissue sharing?
PS - What I am asking about isn't that far from the latest research, see: http://www.medscape.com/viewarticle/574944_4